From what source manuscript did Tyndale translate this verse?

The Majority Text and Textus Receptus say that Abraham bought a tomb from the sons of Hamor OF Shechem. (various translations supply either “father” or “son,” but the Greek does not say that. The KJV says “father” in italics.
The NA28 text says Abraham bought the tomb from the sons of Hamor IN / AT Shechem.
But the Geneva Bible translates the Vulgate, which says “from the sons of Emmor, SON of Shechem.”

But what is interesting is William Tyndale. His translation reads the same as the NA28. What was his source text? The critical apparatus is below:

εν συχεμ 𝔓³³ ℵ* B C 94 181 307 1175 1678 1739 1891 cop-sa,bo,fay eth SBL TH ECM NA28 {C} ‖ του συχεμ 𝔓⁷⁴ D H P Ψ 049 056 33 93 1611 1735 2080 𝔐 cop-meg Chrys TR AN RP ‖ του εν συχεμ ℵ² A E ‖ “from the sons of Emmor, the son of Shechem” vg ‖ omit syr (says “the sons of Hamor”) ‖ lac 𝔓⁴⁵ L 81. 
In the OT, Shechem was both a man and a place, and the differing readings here reflect that: from Hamor, in Shechem; or, from Hamor of Shechem; or, from Hamor the father of Shechem.  And the author, acc. to the TCGNT, is combining two accounts, one, where Abraham bought a burial plot from Ephron the Hittite in Machpelah, (Gen. 23:3-20), where Jacob was burried (Gen 49:31; 50:13), and two, where Jacob bought one from Hamor the father of Shechem (Gen. 33:19, Josh 24:32), where Joseph was buried. This is because Stephen abbreviated all of the fathers’ deaths together, by saying, “And he (Jacob) and our fathers died…”  It would have been more accurate to say “And Joseph and our fathers died, and were transferred to Shechem…”  But that would leave out Jacob who had just been the subject.  The fact that both Luke and all subsequent scribes did not whitewash this, shows we can rely on Luke’s accounts to be accurate recordings of what was said.

You can read my translation of Acts here: https://bibletranslation.ws/trans/DRPbiblesofar.pdf